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\title{Math 210A\\Homework 4}
\author{Brett Hemenway}

\begin{document}
	\maketitle
	\begin{itemize}
		\item [1.]
			Let $A$ and $C$ be groups, and $\theta : C \rightarrow \Aut(A)$ a homomorphism.  Let $A \rtimes_{\theta} C$ be the set $A \times C$ with a binary operation defined by 
			$(a,c)(a^\prime,c^\prime) = ((a \theta(c)(a^\prime),cc^\prime)$ for $a,a^\prime \in A$ and $c,c^\prime \in C$.  This defines a group law because
			\begin{itemize}
				\item [closed:]
					$(a,c)(a^\prime,c^\prime) = (a \theta(c)(a^\prime),cc^\prime ) \in A \times C$ because $\theta(c)(a) \in A$, and $A$, and $C$ are closed.
				\item [identity:]
					\[
						(a,c)(e_a,e_c) = (a \theta(c)(e_a), ce_c ) = ( a e_a, c ) = (a,c)
					\]
					We have $\theta(c)(e_a) = e_a$ because $\theta(c)$ is an automorphism, and
					\[
						(e_a,e_c)(a,c) = (e_a \theta(e_c)(a), e_cc ) = (e_aa,c )  = (a,c)
					\]
					because $\theta$ is a homomorphism.
				\item [inverse:]
					\begin{align*}
						(a,c)(\theta(c^{-1})(a^{-1}),c^{-1}) 	&= (a\theta(c)(\theta(c^{-1})(a)),cc^{-1})\\
																&= (a\theta(cc^{-1})a^{-1},cc^{-1})\\
																&= (aa^{-1},e_c)\\
																&= (e_a,e_c)
					\end{align*}
					and
					\begin{align*}
						(\theta(c^{-1})(a^{-1}),c^{-1})(a,c) 	&= (\theta(c^{-1})(a^{-1})\theta(c^{-1})(a),c^{-1}c)\\
																&= (\theta(c^{-1}c)(a^{-1}a),e_c)\\
																&= (\theta(e_c)(e_a),e_c)\\
																&= (e_a,e_c)
					\end{align*}
				\item [associative:]
					\begin{align*}
						((a_1,c_1)(a_2,c_2))(a_3,c_3) 	&= (a_1\theta(c_1)(a_2),c_1c_2)(a_3,c_3)\\
														&= (a_1\theta(c_1)(a_2)\theta(c_1c_2)(a_3),c_1,c_2c_3)\\
														&= (a_1\theta(c_1)(a_2)\theta(c_1)(\theta(c_2)a_3), c_1c_2c_3)\\
														&= (a_1\theta(c_1)(a_2\theta(c_2)(a3)),c_1c_2c_3)\\
														&= (a_1,c_1)((a_2\theta(c_2)(a_3),c_2c_3))\\
														&= (a_1,c_1)((a_2,c_2)(a_3,c_3))
					\end{align*}
			\end{itemize}
			So $A \rtimes_\theta C$ is a group.\\
			Suppose $B \simeq A \rtimes_{\theta} C$, then let
			\begin{align*}
				f : A 	&\rightarrow B\\
					a	&\mapsto	(a,e_c)
			\end{align*}
			and
			\begin{align*}
				g : B	&\rightarrow C\\
				 (a,c)	&\mapsto c
			\end{align*}
			$f$ is a homomorphism because 
			\[
				f(ab) = (ab,e_c) = (a\theta(e_c)b,e_ce_c) = (a,e_c)(b,e_c) = f(a)f(b)
			\]
			Where the second to last inequality holds because $\theta$ is a homomorphism.  $f$ is clearly injective because
			\[
				a = b \Leftrightarrow (a,e_c) = (b,e_c)
			\]
			$g$ is clearly a surjective homomorphism, and 
			\[
				\ker(g) = \{ (a,e_c) : a \in A \} = \im(f) = f(A)
			\]
			So we have the exact sequence
			\begin{equation}
				\xymatrix{
						1 \ar[r] & A \ar[r]^f &B \ar[r]^g &C \ar[r] &1
				}
				\label{exact}
			\end{equation}
			If we define
			\begin{align*}
				g^\prime : C	&\rightarrow B\\
							c	&\mapsto	(e_a,c)
			\end{align*}
			then $gg^\prime(c) = g(g^\prime(c)) = g(e_a,c) = c$, so $gg^{-1}$ is the identity on $C$.
			For the converse, suppose the sequence (\ref{exact}) is exact, and $g^\prime : C \rightarrow B$ with $gg^\prime$ the identity on $C$.  Let
			\[
				\theta : C	\rightarrow \Aut(A)
			\]
			by the rule
			\begin{align*}
				\theta(c) : A &\rightarrow A\\
							a &\mapsto	f^{-1}(g^\prime(c)f(a)g^\prime(c)^{-1})
			\end{align*}
			$\theta(c)$ is an automorphism of $A$ because $f$ is an isomorphism from $A$ to $\im(f)$, and conjugation by $g^\prime(c)$ is an automorphism of $\im(f)$ because $\im(f) = \ker(g)$ is normal in $B$, 
			and finally $f^{-1}$ is an isomorphism from $\im(f)$ to $A$, then since the composition of three isomorphisms is an isomorphism, $\theta(c)$ is an isomorphism from $A \rightarrow A$.\\
			$\theta$ is a homomorphism because
			\begin{align*}
				\theta(c_1c_2)(a)	&= f^{-1}(g^\prime(c_1c_2)f(a)g^\prime(c_1c_2)^{-1})\\
									&= f^{-1}(g^\prime(c_1)g^\prime(c_2)f(a)g^\prime(c_2)^{-1}g^\prime(c_1)^{-1})\\
									&= f^{-1}(g^\prime(c_1)f(f^{-1}(g^\prime(c_2)f(a)g^\prime(c_2)^{-1}))g^\prime(c_1)^{-1})\\
									&= f^{-1}(g^\prime(c_1)f(\theta(c_2)(a))g^\prime(c_1)^{-1})\\
									&= \theta(c_1)(\theta(c_2)(a))
			\end{align*}
			Now, let
			\begin{align*}
				\phi : A \rtimes_\theta C	&\rightarrow B\\
						(a,c)				&\mapsto f(a)g^\prime(c)
			\end{align*}
			We will show that $\phi$ is an isomorphism.  $\phi$ is a homomorphism because
			\begin{align*}
				\phi((a,c)(a^\prime,c^\prime))	&= \phi( (a\theta(c)a^\prime,cc^\prime) )\\
												&= \phi( (af^{-1}(g^\prime(c)f(a^\prime)g^\prime(c)^{-1}),cc^\prime ) )\\
												&= f(af^{-1}(g^\prime(c)f(a\prime)g^\prime(c)^{-1}))g(cc^\prime)\\
												&= f(a)g^\prime(c)f(a^\prime)g^\prime(c)^{-1}g^\prime(c)g^\prime(c^\prime)\\
												&= (f(a)g^\prime(c))(f(a^\prime)g^\prime(c^\prime))\\
												&= \phi(a,c)\phi(a^\prime,c^\prime)
			\end{align*}
			$\phi$ is injective because if $f(a)g^\prime(c) = f(a^\prime)g^\prime(c^\prime)$ then
			\begin{align*}
				g^\prime(c) &= f(a)^{-1}f(a^\prime)g^\prime(c^\prime)\\
							&= f(a^{-1}a^\prime)g^\prime(c^\prime)\\
			\end{align*}
			which gives
			\begin{equation}
				g^\prime(c(c^\prime)^{-1}) = f(a^{-1}a^\prime)
				\label{eqn:inj}
			\end{equation}
			but $\im(f) = \ker(g)$, so applying $g$ to both sides gives
			\[
				c(c^\prime)^{-1} = e_c
			\]
			so $c = c^\prime$.  Plugging this back in to equation (\ref{eqn:inj}) gives
			\[
				g^\prime(e_c) = e_B = f(a^{-1}a^\prime)
			\]
			Since $f$ is injective, we have that $a = a^\prime$.\\
			This shows that $\phi$ is injective.
			To show that $\phi$ is surjective, let $b \in B$, with $g(b) = c$.  $g$ is an isomorphism from $B/\ker(g) = B/f(A)\rightarrow C$, so we have equality of right cosets
			\[
				f(A)b = f(A)g^\prime(c)
			\]
			So $g^\prime(c)b^{-1} \in f(A)$.  Suppose $g^\prime(c)b^{-1} = f(a)$, then $f(a^{-1})g^\prime(c) = b$.  So $\phi$ is onto.
		\item [2.]
			\begin{itemize}
				\item [a.]
					Let $D_n$ be the dihedral group of order $2n$, i.e. $D_n = \langle \sigma, \tau \rangle$ where $\sigma^n = e = \tau^2$ and $\sigma\tau = \tau\sigma^{n-1}$.  Let
					\begin{align*}
						f : \Z/n\Z	&\rightarrow D_n\\
								a	&\mapsto	\sigma^{a}
					\end{align*}
					Then $f$ is an injective homomorphism.  Let
					\begin{align*}
						g : D_n					&\rightarrow \Z/2\Z\\
							\sigma^{a}\tau^c 	&\mapsto		c
					\end{align*}
					Then $g$ is a surjective homomorphism.  Finally, if we let
					\begin{align*}
						g^\prime : \Z/2\Z	&\rightarrow D_n\\
									c		&\mapsto	\tau^c
					\end{align*}
					We have that $gg^\prime$ is the identity on $\Z/2\Z$.  By problem 1, we have that $D_n \simeq \Z/n\Z \rtimes_\theta \Z/2\Z$ where
					\begin{align*}
						\theta(c)(a)	&= f^{-1}(g^\prime(c)f(a)g^\prime(c)^{-1})\\
										&= f^{-1}(\tau^c\sigma^a\tau^c)\\
					\end{align*}
					So
					\begin{align*}
						\theta(\bar{0})(a) &= f^{-1}(\tau^0\sigma^a\tau^0) = f^{-1}(\sigma^{a}) = a\\
						\theta(\bar{1})(a) &= f^{-1}(\tau\sigma^a\tau) = f^{-1}(\sigma^{-a}) = -a
					\end{align*}
			\item [b.]
				Let $\mathbf{Q}$ the quaternion group of order 8, i.e. $\mathbf{Q} = \{ \pm 1, \pm i, \pm j, \pm k\}$.  If $\mathbf{Q}$ were the semidirect product of groups, counting gives four possibilities
				\begin{align*}
					\mbox{(1) } \mathbf{Q} &\simeq \Z/4Z \rtimes_\theta \Z/2\Z\\
					\mbox{(2) } \mathbf{Q} &\simeq \Z/2Z\times \Z/2\Z \rtimes_\theta \Z/2\Z\\
					\mbox{(3) } \mathbf{Q} &\simeq \Z/2Z \rtimes_\theta \Z/4\Z\\
					\mbox{(3) } \mathbf{Q} &\simeq \Z/2Z \rtimes_\theta \K
				\end{align*}
				Case (1) is ruled out because $\mathbf{Q} \not \simeq D_n \simeq \Z/4\Z \rtimes_{\theta} \Z/2\Z$\\
				Case (2) is ruled out because $\mathbf{Q}$ has only $1$ element of order $2$ so there is no surjective map $g$ from $\mathbf{Q}$ to $\K$.\\
				Case (3) is ruled out because if $f$ injects from $\Z/2\Z$ to $\mathbf{Q}$, then $f(\Z/2\Z) = \{\pm 1\}$ but then $\mathbf{Q}/\ker(g) = \mathbf{Q}/\{\pm 1\}$, but 
					\[
						\mathbf{Q}/\{\pm 1\} \simeq \K \not \simeq \Z/4\Z
					\]
				Case (4) is ruled out because there is no surjection from $\mathbf{Q}$ to $\K$ because $\mathbf{Q}$ has only one element of order 2.\\
				So we conclude that $\mathbf{Q}$ is not the semidirect product of two non-trivial groups.
		\end{itemize}
		\item [3.]
			Let $H \subset G$ be a subgroup
			\begin{itemize}
				\item [a.]
					$Z_G(H) = \{g \in G : gh = hg \text{ for all } h \in H \}$.  Clearly $Z_G(H) \subset N_G(H)$, $Z_G(H)$ is normal in $N_G(H)$ because it is the kernel of the map
					\begin{align*}
						\phi : N_G(H)	&\rightarrow \Aut(H)\\
								g		&\mapsto	\mbox{ conjugation by $g$ }
					\end{align*}
					$\phi$ is a homomorphism because
					\begin{align*}
						\phi(g_1g_2)(h)	&= (g_1g_2)h(g_1g_2)^{-1}\\
										&= g_1(g_2hg_2^{-1})g_1^{-1}\\
										&= \phi(g_1) \circ \phi(g_2) (h)
					\end{align*}
					$Z(G)$ is the kernel of $\phi$ because $ghg^{-1} = h \Leftrightarrow gh = hg$.
				\item [b.]
					The monomorphism from $N_G(H)/Z_G(H)$ to $\Aut(H)$ was described in part (a).
				\item [c.]
					Let $G$ be infinite, and $H$ normal subgroup of $G$ with $|H| = n$.  Then from part $b$ we have an injection from $N_G(H)/Z_G(H) = G/Z_G(H)$ into $\Aut(H) \subset S_n$.  So $|G/Z_G(H)| \le n!$.\\
					If $G$ has no non-trivial finite quotient, then it for any finite subgroup $H$, we have $G/Z_G(H)$ must be trivial, so $Z_G(H) = G$.  This means that $H$ is abelian, and since $Z_G(H) \subset N_G(H)$, we have
					that $N_G(H) = G$, and hence $H$ is normal.
			\end{itemize}
		\item [4.]
			Let $G$ be a simple group and $H$ a subgroup of $G$ with index $n < \infty$.  Then $G$ acts on the cosets $G/H$.  This gives us a homomorphism from $G$ to $S_{G/H} = S_n$.  The kernel of this homomorphism is a normal 
			subgroup of $G$, but since $G$ is simple it must be $G$ or $\{e\}$.  It cannot be $G$ since $G$ does not act trivially on the cosets $G/H$.  So the kernel must be trivial.  From this we conclude $G$ injects into $S_n$, so $|G| \le n!$.
		\item [5.]
			Let $H \subset G$.
			\begin{itemize}
				\item [a.]
					Suppose $G$ is solvable, then we have a sequence
					\[
						1 = H_0 \subset H_1 \subset \ldots \subset H_n = G
					\]
					with $H_{i+1}/H_i$ abelian.  Consider the sequence
					\[
						1 = H_0 \cap H \subset H_1 \cap H \subset \ldots \subset H_n \cap H = H
					\]
					$(H_i\cap H) \triangleleft (H_{i+1} \cap H)$ because $g(H_i \cap H)g^{-1} \subset H_{i}$ for $g \in H_{i+1}$ and $g(H_i\cap H)g^{-1} \in H$ for $g \in H$.\\
					Next, we apply the second isomorphism theorem to the group $(H\cap H_{i+1})/(H \cap H_i) = (H \cap H_{i+1})/((H \cap H_{i+1}) \cap H_i)$, this gives 
					\[
						(H \cap H_{i+1})/(H \cap H_i) = (H \cap H_{i+1})/((H \cap H_{i+1})\cap H_i) \simeq H_{i}(H \cap H_{i+1})/H_i
					\]
					But $H_i(H \cap H_{i+1})/H_i$ is a subgroup of $H_{i+1}/H_i$, so it must be abelian as well.  Thus $H$ is solvable.
				\item [b.]
					Suppose $H$ and $G/H$ are solvable.  So we have series
					\[
						1 = H^\prime_0 \subset \ldots \subset H^\prime_r = G/H
					\]
					with each $H^\prime_{i+1}/H^\prime_i$ abelian.  Then by the correspondence theorem, we have a sequence
					\[
						H = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_r = G
					\]
					By the third isomorphism theorem $H_{i+1}/H_i \simeq H^\prime_{i+1}/H^\prime_i$, so each $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is abelian.
					Since $H$ is solvable, we also have the sequence
					\[
						1 = K_0 \subset \ldots \subset K_t = H
					\]
					Splicing these two sequences together we have that $G$ is solvable because
					\[
						1 = K_0 \subset \ldots \subset K_t = H = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_r = G
					\]
					For the converse, if $G$ is solvable, by part (a), $H$ is solvable.  Then suppose 
					\[
						1 = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_n = G
					\]
					Consider the series
					\begin{equation}
						H = HH_0 \subset \ldots \subset HH_n = G
						\label{quotser}
					\end{equation}
					Each $HH_i$ is a subgroup of $G$ because $H$ is normal in $G$.  $HH_i$ is normal in $HH_{i+1}$ because if $h \in H$, $h_{i+1} \in H_{i+1}$, we have
					\begin{align*}
						(hh_{i+1})HH_i(hh_{i+1})^{-1} 	&= (hh_{i+1})HH_i(h_{i+1}^{-1}h^{-1})\\
														&= H(hh_{i+1})H_i(h_{i+1}^{-1}h^{-1})\\
														&= (Hh)(h_{i+1}H_ih_{i+1}^{-1})h^{-1}\\
														&= HH_ih^{-1}\\
														&= H_iHh^{-1}\\
														&= H_iH\\
														&= HH_i
					\end{align*}
					We know each quotient $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is abelian, and we have surjective homomorphism from $H_{i+1}/H_i$ to $HH_{i+1}/HH_i$ given by $h_{i+1}H_i \mapsto h_{i+1}H_iH = h_{i+1}HH_i$
					So each quotient $HH_{i+1}/HH_i$ is abelian because $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is.  To see that $G/H$ is solvable, mod out each term in the series (\ref{quotser}) by $H$, and apply the third isomorphism theorem.
				\item [c.]
					\begin{itemize}
						\item [(i)]
							This is almost identical to the proof of part (a).\\
							Suppose $G$ is polycyclic.  Then we have a series
							\[
								1 = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_n = G
							\]
							with $H_{i+1}/H_i$ cyclic.  Then consider the sequence
							\[
								1 = H_0\cap H \subset \ldots H_n \cap H = H
							\]
							$(H_i\cap H) \triangleleft (H_{i+1} \cap H)$ because $g(H_i \cap H)g^{-1} \in H_{i+1}$ for $g \in H_{i+1}$ and $g(H_i\cap H)g^{-1} \in H$ for $g \in H$.\\
							Next, we apply the second isomorphism theorem to the group 
							\[
								(H\cap H_{i+1})/(H \cap H_i) = (H \cap H_{i+1})/((H \cap H_{i+1}) \cap H_i)
							\]
							this gives 
							\[
								(H \cap H_{i+1})/(H \cap H_i) \simeq H_{i}(H \cap H_{i+1})/H_i
							\]
							But $H_i(H \cap H_{i+1})/H_i$ is a subgroup of $H_{i+1}/H_i$, since any subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic, we have that $(H\cap H_{i+1})/(H \cap H_i)$ is cyclic, 
							thus $H$ is polycyclic.
						\item [(ii)]
							This is almost identical to the proof of part (b).\\
							Suppose $H$ and $G/H$ are polycyclic.  So we have series
							\[
								1 = H^\prime_0 \subset \ldots \subset H^\prime_r = G/H
							\]
							with each $H^\prime_{i+1}/H^\prime_i$ cyclic.  Then by the correspondence theorem, we have a sequence
							\[
								H = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_r = G
							\]
							By the third isomorphism theorem $H_{i+1}/H_i \simeq H^\prime_{i+1}/H^\prime_i$, so each $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is cyclic.
							Since $H$ is polycyclic, we also have the sequence
							\[
								1 = K_0 \subset \ldots \subset K_t = H
							\]
							Splicing these two sequences together we have that $G$ is polycyclic because
							\[
								1 = K_0 \subset \ldots \subset K_t = H = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_r = G
							\]
							For the converse, if $G$ is polycyclic, by part (c.i), $H$ is polycyclic.  Then suppose 
							\[
								1 = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_n = G
							\]
							Again, consider the series
							\begin{equation*}
								H = HH_0 \subset \ldots \subset HH_n = G
							\end{equation*}
							We have already seen that $HH_i$ is normal in $HH_{i+1}$ we know each quotient $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is cyclic, and we have surjective homomorphism from $H_{i+1}/H_i$ to $HH_{i+1}/HH_i$ given by $h_{i+1}H_i \mapsto h_{i+1}H_iH = h_{i+1}HH_i$
							So each quotient $HH_{i+1}/HH_i$ is cyclic because $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is.  To see that $G/H$ is polycyclic, mod out each term in the series by $H$, and apply the third isomorphism theorem.
				\end{itemize}
			\end{itemize}
		\item [6.]
			A group $G$ is said to have a composition series if there is a finite chain of subgroups
			\[
				1 \subset H_0 \subset H_1 \subset \ldots \subset H_n =G
			\]
			of $G$ with $H_i \triangleleft H_{i+1}$ and $H_{i+1}/H_i$ simple.
			\begin{itemize}
				\item [a.]
					The group of order $1$ obviously has a composition series\\
					Suppose all groups of order less than $n$ have a composition series\\
					Let $G$ be a group with $|G| = n$.\\
					If $G$ is simple, then we have the composition series $1 \subset G$.\\
					Otherwise let $H \triangleleft G$.  By our induction assumption $G/H$ has a composition series
					\[
						1 = H^\prime_0 \subset \ldots \subset H^\prime_r \subset G/H
					\]
					with $H^\prime_{i+1}/H^\prime_i$ simple.
					Then by the correspondence theorem, we have a sequence of subgroups
					\[
						H = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_r = G
					\]
					with $H_{i+1}/H_i$ simple.
					By our induction assumption, $H$ has a composition series, 
					\[
						 1 = K_0 \subset \ldots \subset K_t \subset H
					\]
					Then, splicing these two series together we obtain a composition series for $G$
					\[
						1 = K_0 \subset \ldots \subset K_t = H = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_r = G
					\]
					So any finite group $G$ has a composition series.
				\item [b.]
					First, note that in any composition series, the first subgroup, $H_0$ must be simple.\\
					Every subgroup of $\Z$ has the form $n\Z$, but $n\Z$ is not simple because it has a normal subgroup $2n\Z$.
					So $\Z$ does not have a composition series.
				\item [c.]
					Let $G$ be a finite solvable group with
					\[
						1 = H_0 \subset \ldots \subset H_n = G
					\]
					Each quotient $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is finite, so by part (a) has a composition series
					\[
						1 = K_0 \subset \ldots K_{r_i} = H_{i+1}/H_i
					\]
					with $K_{j+1}/K_j$ simple.  But each $K_j$ is abelian because $H_{i+1}/H_i$ is abelian.  Each quotient $K_{j+1}/K_j$ is cyclic, because the only finite abelian simple groups are cyclic, and 
					the correspondence theorem gives us a composition series
					\[
						H_i = \widehat{K}_0 \subset \ldots \widehat{K}_{r_i} = H_{i+1}
					\]
					and $\widehat{K}_{j+1}/\widehat{K}_j \simeq K_{j+1}/K_j$.\\
					Continuing this process for each neighboring $H_{i+1},H_i$, we can ``fill out" our solvable series to make a chain all of whose quotients are abelian and simple, and hence cyclic.
					So we conclude that any finite solvable group is polycyclic.
				\item [d.]
					We will show that every polycyclic group is finitely generated.  Let $G$ be a polycyclic group with composition series
					\[
						1 = H_0 \subset H_1 \subset \ldots \subset H_n = G
					\]
					We proceed by induction on $n$.\\
					if $n = 1$, then $G$ is cyclic, so $G$ is finitely generated.\\
					Assume all groups with a composition series of less than $n$ terms are finitely generated.\\
					$G/H_{n-1}$ is cyclic, so let $\langle aH_{n-1} \rangle = G/H_{n-1}$.  Then for any $g \in G$ there exists an $k$ such that $gH_{n-1} = a^kH_{n-1}$.
					So $a^{-k}g = h \in H_{n-1}$, or $g = a^kh$ but by our induction assumption $H_{n-1}$ is finitely generated, so any element in $G$ can be written as a combination of the generators of $H_{n-1}$ and $a$.
					So $G$ is finitely generated.\\
					To show that $\Q$ is not polycyclic, it remains only to show that $\Q$ is not finitely generated.  This is clear though because the set $\langle \frac{p_1}{q_1},\ldots,\frac{p_n}{q_n} \rangle$ contains no elements with denominator 
					greater than lcm$( q_1,q_2,\ldots,q_n )$, so it cannot be all of $\Q$.

			\end{itemize}
	\end{itemize}
\end{document}
